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CCRN-Adult Free Demo Questions
A sample from the full question set for this exam.
QUESTION 1 OF 5
A patient with a history of asthma presents with acute onset of dyspnea, a non - productive cough, and tachypne a. He is very anxious, restless, and tachycardic. Which of the following is a first - line drug for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: D
Beta - agonists are the first - line drugs for acute asthma exacerbations because they rapidly reverse
bronchoconstriction and improve airflow. They act by stimulating beta - 2 receptors in the smooth
muscle of the airways, causing relaxation and dilation. Beta - agonists can be administered by
inhalation, nebulization, or injection. Examples of beta - agonists include albuterol, levalbuterol, and
terbutaline.
bronchoconstriction and improve airflow. They act by stimulating beta - 2 receptors in the smooth
muscle of the airways, causing relaxation and dilation. Beta - agonists can be administered by
inhalation, nebulization, or injection. Examples of beta - agonists include albuterol, levalbuterol, and
terbutaline.
QUESTION 2 OF 5
The patient’s symptoms of tremulousness, anxiety, and startle response suggest that he may be experiencing alcohol withdrawal, which can occur within hours to days after the last drink. Alcohol withdrawal can cause severe complications, such as seizures, delirium tremens, and death, if not treated promptly and appropriately. Alcohol withdrawal can also worsen GI bleeding by increasing gastric acid secretion, impairing clotting factors, and causing hypertension and tachycardia. Therefore, the most pertinent part of the patient’s history to obtain is the last alcohol intake, which can help determine the risk and severity of withdrawal and guide the management of the patient.
A patient is admitted with Gl bleeding. During the assessment, the nurse notes the patient to be tremulous, anxious, and startles every time he is touched by the nurse. Which of the following is the most pertinent part of the patient's history to obtain?
Correct Answer: A
The patient’s symptoms of tremulousness, anxiety, and startle response suggest that he may be experiencing alcohol withdrawal, which can occur within hours to days after the last drink. Alcohol withdrawal can cause severe complications, such as seizures, delirium tremens, and death, if not treated promptly and appropriately. Alcohol withdrawal can also worsen GI bleeding by increasing gastric acid secretion, impairing clotting factors, and causing hypertension and tachycardia. Therefore, the most pertinent part of the patient’s history to obtain is the last alcohol intake, which can help determine the risk and severity of withdrawal and guide the management of the patient.
QUESTION 3 OF 5
A patient's IV with norepinephrine (Levophed) infusing is red, swollen, and the IV pump is alarming. A nurse should anticipate
Correct Answer: A
Phentolamine (Regitine) is the antidote for norepinephrine extravasation, which is the leakage of the
vasopressor from the vein into the surrounding tissue. Phentolamine reverses the vasoconstriction
and ischemia caused by norepinephrine by blocking the alpha - adrenergic receptors. Phentolamine
should be administered intradermally around the site of extravasation as soon as possible, and the
infusion should be stopped but the IV catheter should not be removed until some of the
norepinephrine is aspirated. A warm compress may worsen the tissue damage by increasing the
absorption of norepinephrine, and lowering the extremity may increase the edema and pain.
Removing the IV immediately may prevent the aspiration of norepinephrine and the administration
of phentolamine.
vasopressor from the vein into the surrounding tissue. Phentolamine reverses the vasoconstriction
and ischemia caused by norepinephrine by blocking the alpha - adrenergic receptors. Phentolamine
should be administered intradermally around the site of extravasation as soon as possible, and the
infusion should be stopped but the IV catheter should not be removed until some of the
norepinephrine is aspirated. A warm compress may worsen the tissue damage by increasing the
absorption of norepinephrine, and lowering the extremity may increase the edema and pain.
Removing the IV immediately may prevent the aspiration of norepinephrine and the administration
of phentolamine.
QUESTION 4 OF 5
A patient who had a liver resection now has a copious amount of serous drainage from the surgical incision. Which of the following should a nurse anticipate when caring for this patient?
Correct Answer: B
A copious amount of serous drainage from a liver resection incision may indicate a bile leak, which
can cause pain, infection, and delayed healing. The nurse should anticipate applying several
abdominal dressings to absorb the fluid and protect the wound. The nurse should also monitor the
patient for signs of infection, such as fever, increased white blood cell count, and foul - smelling
drainage. The nurse should notify the surgeon of the excessive drainage and follow the orders for
further interventions, such as imaging studies, drainage catheter placement, or surgical repair.
Antibiotics may be prescribed, but they are not the first - line treatment for a bile leak. Incision and
debridement of the wound may be necessary if there is necrotic tissue or infection, but it is not the
initial action. Applying a drainage pouch to the site may not be sufficient to contain the large amount
of fluid and may increase the risk of skin breakdown.
can cause pain, infection, and delayed healing. The nurse should anticipate applying several
abdominal dressings to absorb the fluid and protect the wound. The nurse should also monitor the
patient for signs of infection, such as fever, increased white blood cell count, and foul - smelling
drainage. The nurse should notify the surgeon of the excessive drainage and follow the orders for
further interventions, such as imaging studies, drainage catheter placement, or surgical repair.
Antibiotics may be prescribed, but they are not the first - line treatment for a bile leak. Incision and
debridement of the wound may be necessary if there is necrotic tissue or infection, but it is not the
initial action. Applying a drainage pouch to the site may not be sufficient to contain the large amount
of fluid and may increase the risk of skin breakdown.
QUESTION 5 OF 5
A patient is receiving therapeutic hypothermia post - cardiac arrest. Which of the following orders should a nurse clarify?
Correct Answer: D
Sequential compression devices (SCDs) are not recommended for patients receiving therapeutic
hypothermia (TH) post - cardiac arrest, because they may interfere with the cooling process and
increase the risk of skin injury. SCDs are used to prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT) by applying
intermittent pneumatic pressure to the lower extremities, but they may also increase peripheral
blood flow and heat exchange, which can counteract the effects of TH. SCDs may also cause skin
breakdown, blisters, or burns in patients with impaired sensation and reduced perfusion due to TH.
Therefore, a nurse should clarify the order for SCDs and consider alternative methods of DVT
prophylaxis, such as pharmacological agents or early mobilization.
hypothermia (TH) post - cardiac arrest, because they may interfere with the cooling process and
increase the risk of skin injury. SCDs are used to prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT) by applying
intermittent pneumatic pressure to the lower extremities, but they may also increase peripheral
blood flow and heat exchange, which can counteract the effects of TH. SCDs may also cause skin
breakdown, blisters, or burns in patients with impaired sensation and reduced perfusion due to TH.
Therefore, a nurse should clarify the order for SCDs and consider alternative methods of DVT
prophylaxis, such as pharmacological agents or early mobilization.
Question 1 of 5